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最近读了一篇文章,最后一句没看懂,请各位前辈后生帮忙翻译最后一句,并分析if 和 therefore的用法。. T1 x1 _/ ^: B- m" b) o2 H' g( Q
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TITLE: lt is no longer relevant to classify countries into ‘rich‘ and ‘poor‘ or ‘developed‘ and developing‘
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+ x; @$ Z0 p& ySince the nineteenth century, or even earlier, people have referred to countries as ‘rich‘ or ‘poor‘.
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1 A3 ?) m% n0 ]$ g9 _; B' JThese terms may have changed; for example instead of ‘rich‘ the countries may be referred to as wealthy‘ or ‘developed‘, while ‘poor‘ countries may be called ‘developing or emerging countries. 7 N" L9 ?5 B5 }- Q/ o8 c1 T
8 v* \+ P, ~2 U4 w x/ Y# q3 @1 y% UThis way of classifying countries is based an the idea that an entire country is essentially ‘rich‘ or ‘poor‘, and does not take into account the possibility that there may be significant differences in wealth within that country, or that the country might not remain rich permanently.
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1 A# p- @1 L1 }0 ?& ]7 NThis idea can be illustrated by the situation of former colonial powers, for example the UK, which has seen a gradual decline in its wealth while it has been overtaken by formerly poorer countries. Furthermore, within this country and many others there is a large gap between rich and poor. , X/ J2 s+ i& ~1 A
7 P! ?: f6 b; ~6 o7 WIf there are benefits in being rich, they therefore do not apply to all the citizens of such countries.
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期待各位踊跃翻译,谢谢! |
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